Ziay!

Dave R

This question has come to mind after observing the taste preferences of my son. Ever since he began eating solid food it seems he has shown a preference for the same kinds of foods/tastes I like, more so than those my wife prefers.

Is the sense of taste passed down genetically, if so do distinct cultures show genetic differences for taste or is it all just the environment and the foods you are given?

See http://www.eurekalert.org/pub_releases/1999-02/UoCS-UANR-190299.php as a prep for answering if needed.
Before chiming in with 'oh it's obviously nuture' please consider I am talking about obeserving a child from 1-3 years old and his preference for foods supplied in our home/restaurant experience. My wife and I both agree he likes a much higher percentage of what I like compared with what she likes. At this early age I can't see how nuture has had time to play a big role.

Cowboy

IDK but i was just wandering this earlier today and would also like to know what it is?

mypublicident

Ahh, another Nature vs Nurture discussion. Of course it is both. If we didn't have the genetic component, our early anscestors would have eaten non-healthy food and the human race would have died out. For the environmental aspect, we learn to like what is around us and is easy to get. If pig farmers couldn't get used to the stench, then no one would be pig farmers.